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Let

\begin{cases} x=\sin \theta \cos \varphi \\ y= \sin \theta \sin \varphi \\ z= \cos \theta \end{cases}

Then we obtain

$$g_{\mathbb{S}^2} = \begin{pmatrix} 1& 0 \\ 0 & \sin^2 \theta \end{pmatrix}$$

Hence, $$\det (g_{\mathbb{S}^2})= \sin^2 \theta$$

Furthermore,

$$\Delta_{\mathbb{S}^2} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\det (g_{\mathbb{S}^2})}} \sum_{i,j} \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta_i} (\sqrt{\det (g_{\mathbb{S}^2})} g_{ij} \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta_j}) = \frac{1}{ \sin \theta} (\frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} (\sin \theta \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta}) + \frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi} (\sin \theta \frac{\partial}{\partial \varphi})) $$

$$= \frac{1}{ \sin \theta} \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} (\sin \theta \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})+ \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \varphi^2}. $$

As final answer, I'm supposed to obtain $\frac{1}{ \sin \theta} \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta} (\sin \theta \frac{\partial}{\partial \theta})+ \frac{1}{\sin^2 \theta} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial \varphi^2}$, but I just don't know where is my mistake.

Thanks!

User
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    Your definition for the Laplace Beltrami operator is incorrect. You should have a squareroot of a determinant inside the derivatives and an inverse metric. This will invert the components in the metric and give you the correct answer. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace–Beltrami_operator – ClassicStyle Jul 01 '16 at 02:43
  • The determinant, it is fine... It was just a mistake, but what do you mean by inverse metric... Is it simply $g_{\mathbb{S}^2}^{-1}$? –  Jul 01 '16 at 03:17
  • Yes, the metric with indices "up". Just invert the matrix – ClassicStyle Jul 01 '16 at 06:10

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