let f be a nonconstant analytic function in the domain D, show that the function $g(z)= \overline {f(z)}$ is not analytic in D
Cauchy-Reimann equations
suppose that $$f(z)=f(x+iy)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$$ is differentiable at the point $z_0=x_0+iy_0$
then the partial derivatives of u and v exists and $$ \begin{aligned} f'(z_0)&=u_x(x_0.y_0)+iv_x(x_0,y_0) \\ f'(z_0)&= v_y(x_0.y_0)-iu_y(x_0.y_0) \end{aligned}$$
Attempt
f is a nonconstant analytic function in the domain D that means that it is diff on all D (or that $\exists \epsilon$ openball where f is diff with D)
$ f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$ so cauchy-reimann equations hold that is $$\begin{aligned} f'(z)&=u_x(x,y)+iv_x(x,y) \\f'(z)&=v_y(x,y)-iu_y(x,y) \end{aligned} $$ we have $u_x=v_y$ and $v_x=-u_y$
Now if for g the cauchy reimman equations do not hold then g is not diff so let us check note that $g(z)=u(x,y)+-v(x,y)$
$$\begin{aligned}
g'(z)&=u_x(x,y)-iv_x(x,y)
\\g'(z)&=-v_y(x,y)+iu_y(x,y)
\end{aligned} $$
missing step
where g is non constant
(kind of confused because i want to say that one u or v has a atleast one variable x or y. should I divide it up to some diff cases???)
and $u_x=-v_y$ and $v_x=u_y$ but that is not the case bc really $u_x=v_y$ and $v_x=-u_y$ . so the cauchy-reimann equations do not hold for $g$ then g is not diff then g is not analytic on D