Related to the question Proof that Laplacian is surjective $\mathcal{P}^n\to\mathcal{P}^{n-2}$, I know in general that the surjectivity is defined to be : $\forall f \in \mathcal{P}^{n-2}$, $\exists \hat{f} \in \mathcal{P}^n$ such that $\Delta \hat{f}=f$. However, in the uncookedfalcon's answer, he seems using another definition of surjectivity. Is there anyone could explain to me how he proves the surjectivity of $\Delta : \mathcal{P}^k \to \mathcal{P}^{k-2}$?
Thanks in advance!