How to show this? F is the Fisher–Snedecor distribution, B is the beta function. This is what i have done
$$Y=\frac{1}{X}$$
$$f_{Y}(y)=f_{X}(1/y)\times (1/y^{2})=\frac{1}{B(\frac{m}{2},\frac{n}{2})}(\frac{m}{n})^{\frac{m}{2}}(\frac{1}{y})^{\frac{m}{2}-1}(1+\frac{m}{n}(\frac{1}{y}))^{\frac{-(m+n)}{2}}(\frac{1}{y})^{2}$$
I concluded that
$$B(\frac{m}{2},\frac{n}{2})=B(\frac{n}{2},\frac{m}{2})$$
I rearranged it so that I got
$$f_{Y}(y)=\frac{1}{B(n,m)}m^{\frac{m}{2}}n^{\frac{-n}{2}}y^{\frac{-m}{2}}y(ny+m)^{\frac{-m}{2}}(ny+m)^{\frac{-n}{2}}(ny)^{\frac{m}{2}}(ny)^{\frac{n}{2}}y^{-2}$$
Where to go next?