For simplicity, consider the bounded linear operator $L:\ell^\infty\rightarrow \ell^\infty$ defined by $$(Lx)_k=x_{k+1}-x_k,$$ where here, $\ell^\infty$ consists of all bounded bi-infinite sequences of real numbers (ie. indexed by $\mathbb{Z}$). In this article (author's link from their website here, if you don't have access to the journal; see equation (2.9)), it is implied that the dual operator, $L':\ell^1\rightarrow\ell^1$, is given by $$(L'y)_k=y_k-y_{k+1}.$$ Now, if I compute the dual of $L$, I get $$(L'y)_k=(L'y)e_k=y(Le_k)=y(e_{k-1}-e_k)=y_{k-1}-y_k,$$ which is not what is claimed above. Where is my mistake? Note that $(e_i)_j=\delta_{i,j}$; that is, $e_i$ is sequence with a one in position $i$, and zeroes everywhere else.
A quick reminder: if $L:X\rightarrow Y$ is a bounded linear operator and $X$ and $Y$ are Banach spaces, the dual of $L$, denoted $L':Y'\rightarrow X'$, is the unique bounded linear operator satisfying $$(L'y)x=y(Lx)$$ for all $y\in Y'$ and $x\in X$, where $X'$ and $Y'$ are the continuous duals of $X$ and $Y$.
Edit: It has been pointed out that $\ell^1$ is not the dual of $\ell^\infty$. The question now changes: how does one prove that $L':(\ell^\infty)'\rightarrow(\ell^\infty)'$ is given by the same formal definition as it was above (that is, with $(L'y)_k=y_k-y_{k+1}$)?