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I want to solve this exercise:

Let $U\subset \mathbb N$ such that if $n\in U$ and $m \mid n$, then also $m\in U$. Prove that the family of this sets form a topology over $\mathbb N$. Find a base for this topology. Find the interior, derived, closure, boundary, exterior and the set of isolated points of $A=\{1,3,4\}$ and $B=\{2\}$.

So $U$ is the set of the divisors of $n$ (let's call it $U_n$) and I suppose that 'the family of this sets' means $\left\{ U_n \right\} _{n\in\mathbb N}$. I visualize it like $\tau\colon=\left\{\{1\},\{1,2\},\{1,3\},\{1,2,4\},\{1,5\},\dots\right\}$.

I know that a topology over $X$ is a subset $\tau \subset \mathcal P (X)$ satisfying the following axioms:

  1. $\varnothing,X\subset \tau$
  2. The arbitrary union of elements in $\tau$ belongs to $\tau$.
  3. The finite intersection of elements in $\tau$ belongs to $\tau$.

But in this case,

  • We don't have $\varnothing\subset \tau$ (unless we assume that $0\in \mathbb N$ and $\varnothing = U_0$).
  • We don't have $\mathbb N \subset \tau$. Or do we? Is it safe to assume that there is a number $N$ that it is a multiple of every natural number? (So $U_N=\mathbb N$).

I don't know if I am defining the topology in a wrong way.

Miguel Mars
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    Such sets are not necessarily the set of divisors of some $n$; for example, the set of all powers of $2$ will be open. – florence Aug 15 '16 at 10:49
  • You need $\emptyset \in \tau$ and $X \in \tau$. Since $\tau$ is a subcollection of $P(X)$, $X \subset \tau$ would mean that $X$ is a family of sets, which it is not. –  Aug 15 '16 at 10:51

3 Answers3

5

First, the axiom is that $\varnothing \in \tau$ and $X\in\tau$, not that $\varnothing\subset \tau$ and $X\subset \tau$.

Second, you seem to assume that every $U$ must be the set of divisors of a particular $n$. That's not what the definition says -- it just says that if you find some $n$ in $U$, then all its divisors are in $U$ too.

For example, $\{1, 3, 5, 9\}$ is a valid $U$ because it contains all the divisors of $1$ (that is, just $1$ itself) and all the divisors of $3$ ($1$ and $3$), and all the divisor of $5$ ($1$ and $5$), and all the divisors of $9$ ($1$ and $3$ and $9$).

$\varnothing$ is a perfectly good $U$ by this definition -- it has no members, so the condition is vacuously satisfied: All the divisors of the members it doesn't have are in $\varnothing$ too.

$\mathbb N$ itself is a perfectly good $U$ too: For every $n$ you can name, all its divisors are elements of $\mathbb N$.

2

Call the family of those sets $T$. Let us show that $T_0 = T \cup \{ \emptyset \}$ is a topology.

First, $\emptyset \notin T$, so we have to adjoint it to $T$ "by hand". Done.

Next, $\Bbb N \in T_0$, obviously: for every $n \in \Bbb N$, the divisors of $n$ are still in $\Bbb N$.

Let $U,V \in T_0$. If any of them is $\emptyset$, then $U \cap V = \emptyset \in T_0$. If $U,V \ne \emptyset$, then let $n \in U \cap V$. Let $m$ be a divisor of $n$. Then $m \in U$ and $m \in V$ because $U,V \in T$, so $m \in U \cap V$, therefore $U \cap V \in T$.

Let $\{U_i \mid i \in I \} \subseteq T_0$. If $U_i = \emptyset \ \forall i \in I$, then $\bigcup _{i \in I} U_i = \emptyset \in T_0$. If at least one $U_i$ is non-empty, then let $n \in \bigcup _{i \in I} U_i$. There must exist a $j \in I$, then, such that $n \in U_j$. In particular, this means that $U_j \ne \emptyset$, so $U_j \in T$. Let $m$ be a divisor of $n$. Since $U_j \in T$, then $m \in U_j$, so that $m \in \bigcup _{i \in I} U_i$, which shows that $\bigcup _{i \in I} U_i \in T \subset T_0$.


Let now $U_n = \{ m \in \Bbb N \mid m \mid n \}$ be the set of the natural divisors of $n$ . Notice that each $n \in \Bbb N$ belongs to $U_n$, so $(U_n)_{n \ge 0}$ covers $\Bbb N$. Next, think of $U_m \cap U_n$. You would like a $U_d$ such that $U_d \subseteq U_m \cap U_n$. Choose $d = \gcd (m, n)$; if $k \in U_d$, then $k \mid d$, and since $d \mid m$, then $k \mid m$ so $k \in U_m$. Similarly, $k \in U_n$, so $k \in U_m \cap U_n$, therefore $U_d \subseteq U_m \cap U_n$. It follows then that $(U_n)_{n \ge 0}$ is a base for $T_0$.


Let us now look at $B = \{ 2 \}$. The only posibilities for $\mathring B$ are $\emptyset$ and $B$. If $B$ were an open set, then all the natural divisors of $2$ should belong to it; but $1 \notin B$, so $B \notin T$, leaving as the only possibility $\mathring B = \emptyset$.

The closure of $B$ is extremely interesting and weird. Remember that $\bar B$ is made of all the limits of sequences from $B$. Fortunately, since $B$ contains a single point, there is a single sequence living in $B$, namely the constant sequence $2, 2, 2, \dots$. Unlike what you expect, the limit of this sequence is not just $2$! Consider an even number $2n$. Pick any open subset containing it; this open subset will then contain all the divisors of $2n$, so in particular it will contain $2$. Any neighbourhood of $2n$ contains the terms of the sequence! This shows that every even number is a limit point for it, which in particular shows that this topology is not Hausdorff. It follows that $\bar B = \{0, 2, 4, 6, \dots\} = \{ 2n \mid n \in \Bbb N \}$.

It immediately follows that $\partial B = \bar B \setminus \mathring B = \{ 2n \mid n \in \Bbb N \}$.

Now, remember that $B'$ is the set of limits of non-constant sequences from $B$. Since the only sequence from $B$ is constant, it follows that $B' = \emptyset$.

It follows immediately that the set of isolated points is $\bar B \setminus B' = \{ 2n \mid n \in \Bbb N \}$.

The exterior of $B$ is, by definition, $\Bbb N \setminus \bar B$ (the odd numbers).

The conclusions hold almost verbatim for every subset made of a single natural number.


Let us finally study $A$. Remember that the interior of a set is the largest open set contained in it. The subsets of $A$ are $\emptyset, \{1\}, \{3\}, \{4\}, \{1,3\}, \{1,4\}, \{3,4\}, \{1,3,4\}$. Of these, the subsets containing $4$ do not also contain $2$ (which divides $4$), so they cannot belong to the topology. Of the remaining ones, the largest one is abviously $\{1,3\}$, so $\mathring A = \{1,3\}$.

The closure is easier: just remember that the closure commutes with finite unions, so

$$\overline {\{1,3,4\}} = \overline {\{1\}} \cup \overline {\{3\}} \cup \overline {\{3\}} = \{ 1 \cdot n \mid n \in \Bbb N\} \cup \{ 3 \cdot n \mid n \in \Bbb N \} \cup \{ 4 \cdot n \mid n \in \Bbb N \} = \\ \Bbb N \cup 3 \Bbb N \cup 4 \Bbb N = \Bbb N ,$$

where for each set made of a single number I have applied the result obtained previously for $B$.

It immediately follows that $\partial A = \bar A \setminus \mathring A = \Bbb N \setminus \{1,3\}$.

The derived set, too, commutes with finite unions, so $A' = \{1\}' \cup \{3\}' \cup \{4\}' = \emptyset \cup \emptyset \cup \emptyset = \emptyset$, where again I have used the result obtained for $B$.

The isolated points are $\bar A \setminus A' = \Bbb N$.

The exterior is just $\Bbb N \setminus \bar A = \emptyset$.

Alex M.
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Complementing the answer by Henning Makholm, the definition doesn't say that sets of divisors are all open sets, just that they form base of topology. Thus, to show that this is indeed topology, you could show that sets of divisors form a base:

(1) they obviously cover $\mathbb N$ since for any $n\in\mathbb N$, $n\in U_n =\{ m\in \mathbb N\,:\, m\mid n\}$,

(2) $k\in U_m\cap U_n \iff k|m$ and $k|n \iff k|\gcd(m,n) \iff k\in U_{\gcd(m,n)}$.

Ennar
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