The easiest way to do this is without a probability tree at all; although if you were to draw a tree diagram, you would be better off drawing branches for '2' and 'not 2' as oppose to '1', '2', '3', '4', '5' and '6' (the former gives you 2 branches to the power of 3 rolls = 8 branches, whereas the latter gives you 3^6 = 216 as you said).
The easiest solution is to use the binomial distribution. The binomial distribution calculates the probability of something happening a distinct number of times given the number of chances (rolls in this case) and the probability (1/6 in this case). To calculate this, consider the following expansion:
$$(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{5}{6})^3=(\frac{1}{6})^3+3(\frac{1}{6})^2(\frac{5}{6})+3(\frac{1}{6})(\frac{5}{6})^2+(\frac{5}{6})^3$$
This binomial expansion represents every combination of $\frac{1}{6}$ and $\frac{5}{6}$ if you had to pick 3 altogether - the possibilities are (I will use '2' for rolling a 2, 'N' for rolling a not 2):
222, 22N, 2N2, N22, 2NN, N2N, NN2, NNN
If you count them you'll see one lot of 222, three of 22N (just in different orders), three of 2NN (again in different orders) and one lot of NNN - which correspond to the coefficients of the terms in the expansion above. So to calculate the probability of getting exactly one 2 and two 'not 2s' is P(2) * P(Not 2) * P(Not 2) * 3, which is what is written in the expansion above and computes to:
$$3(\frac{1}{6})(\frac{5}{6})^2=\frac{25}{72}$$
Now you might be thinking 'What about exactly 6 twos out of 10 rolls? I don't want to expand all that!'. The shortcut is Pascal's Triangle - or you can just use the formula:
$$X \text{~} Bin(10, \frac{1}{6})$$
$$P(X=6)=\binom{10}{6}(\frac{1}{6})^6(\frac{5}{6})^4=\frac{10!}{6!(10-6)!}(\frac{1}{6})^6(\frac{5}{6})^4=0.00217.....$$
That means 'X follows the binomial distribution with 10 tries and probability of success 1/6'. The second line means 'probability of getting exactly 6 successes is 10 Choose 2 (the 10 above the 2) x success^6 x failure^4'. The formula for n-choose-r (number of ways to choose exactly r elements out of n) is
$$\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}$$