So I have written a solution to a simple problem and it is as follows: Let $E_{1}$ denote dealer gets a black jack and $E_{2}$ denote that the player get a blackjack. Note that there are $\binom{52}{2,2,48}$ outcomes in total, and \begin{align*} P\left(E_{1}\right) & =P\left(E_{2}\right)=\frac{\dbinom{4}{1}\dbinom{16}{1}\dbinom{50}{2}}{\dbinom{52}{2,2,48}},P\left(E_{1}\cap E_{2}\right)=\frac{\dbinom{4}{1}\dbinom{16}{1}\dbinom{3}{1}\dbinom{15}{1}}{\dbinom{52}{2,2,48}},\\ \implies & P\left(E_{1}\cup E_{2}\right)=P\left(E_{1}\right)+P\left(E_{2}\right)-P\left(E_{1}\cap E_{2}\right)=0.095,\\ \implies & P\left(\text{neither gets blackjack }\right)=P\left(\left(E_{1}\cup E_{2}\right)^{c}\right)=1-P\left(E_{1}\cup E_{2}\right)=0.905. \end{align*}
My question is that is it legit to use $\implies$ in the middle of calculation? I don't usually see style like this often so just want to make sure..