Yes, this is a well-known undecidable statement. It is implied by GCH (which says that $2^\kappa=\kappa^+$, so if $\kappa<\lambda$ then $2^\kappa<2^\lambda$ since $\kappa^+<\lambda^+$). See Easton's Theorem, which - among other things - implies that it is consistent with ZFC that $2^{\aleph_0}=2^{\aleph_1}=\aleph_2$, as well as many similar variations. (Actually, this result holds in Cohen's original model of ZFC+$\neg$CH, although I don't know if this was known prior to Easton's result. EDIT: See Andreas' comment below.)
One reason you won't see much written about this statement is that - unlike CH or GCH - it doesn't seem to have a lot of useful consequences. It's just not very strong - in particular, note that it does not imply GCH. Indeed, we can have GCH fail everywhere and have this statement still hold; see https://mathoverflow.net/questions/138308/woodins-unpublished-proof-of-the-global-failure-of-gch, which describes a result that (assuming large cardinals) it is consistent that $2^\kappa=\kappa^{++}$ for every $\kappa$.
Perhaps surprisingly, the negation of this statement follows from a useful set-theoretic principle, namely the Proper Forcing Axiom which implies $2^{\aleph_0}=2^{\aleph_1}=\aleph_2$. The Proper Forcing Axiom, among other things, implies that there is a collection of five linear orders of size $\aleph_1$ such that any linear order of size $\aleph_1$ contains a suborder isomorphic to one of these five; that any two $\aleph_1$-dense subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ are isomorphic; and a number of other nice things.