Suppose that $n$ is an even integer.
Then $n = 2r$ for some $r \in\mathbb{Z}$.
Hence $(−1)^n =(−1)^{2r} = 1$ because $2r$ is even.
Therefore $(−1)^n = 1$ for any even integer $n$
Verification?
Suppose that $n$ is an even integer.
Then $n = 2r$ for some $r \in\mathbb{Z}$.
Hence $(−1)^n =(−1)^{2r} = 1$ because $2r$ is even.
Therefore $(−1)^n = 1$ for any even integer $n$
Verification?
You didn't prove anything yet. I am sorry, but your current "solution" is worth $0$ points.
Why?
You say
$(-1)^{2r} = 1$ because $2r$ is even.
But how do you know that if $2r$ is even, $(-1)^{2r} = 1$?
You cannot just assume the conclusion!
That's not how mathematical proofs work. Remember that what you want to prove is the statement:
If $n$ is even, then $(-1)^n=1$.
In your current "proof", you basically say,
I already know that if $2r$ is even, then $(-1)^n=1$.
But you don't know that because that is exactly what you want to prove.
Hint:
For the actual solution, remember that ${\left(a^b\right)}^c = a^{bc}$.
You know $$(-1)^2=1$$, therefore $$(-1)^{2r} = ((-1)^{2})^r = 1^{r} = 1 $$ for any r.
$$ (-1)^2 = (-1) \times (-1) = 1 $$ hence
$$\forall r \in \mathbb{R}, \qquad (-1)^{2r} = \left((-1)^2\right)^r = 1^r = 1.$$