Is there any property due to which we can write $$\frac{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2},\frac{x}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{n}{2})}=\frac{\Gamma(n,x)}{\Gamma(n)}$$ where $n$ is an integer. Thanks in advance.
Asked
Active
Viewed 39 times
2
They are two different functions!
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Incomplete_gamma_function
In that case one shall examine the identity!
– Enrico M. Aug 29 '16 at 09:46$$1 - \frac{\Gamma(M, x)}{\Gamma(M)} = 1 - \frac{\Gamma(M) - \gamma(M, x)}{\Gamma(M)} = \frac{\gamma(M, x)}{\Gamma(M)}$$
– Enrico M. Aug 29 '16 at 09:51