Why is the negation of "either $x = 0$ or $y = 0$" both $x \neq 0$ and $y \neq 0$?
Or is inclusive here, I suppose?
Why is the negation of "either $x = 0$ or $y = 0$" both $x \neq 0$ and $y \neq 0$?
Or is inclusive here, I suppose?
It is inclusive, unless specified otherwise.
Let $x=0$ be $A$ and $y=0$ be $B$.
By De Morgan's Law $$ \neg (A \lor B) = (\neg A \land \neg B) $$
However, it does say either. This might indicate it is exclusive. In that case, that negation is not correct.
Yes it is inclusive if it is not precised.
In general the negation of "$A$ or $B$" is "not $A$ and not $B$". To convince yourself that it is true, you can compare the truth tables.
statement A: either x=0 or y=0. negation of statement A: Its not true that either x=0 or y=0. as negation means opposite of statement A , so we are saying that statement-A is not true. now you read negation statement once it says that both are false it is similar to I wont eat either pasta or french fries which is equivalent to say that I wont eat pasta and I wont eat french fries. So if you equate you will get as Its not true that x=0 and its not true that y=0.
to write in short: ~(p or q) = ~p And ~q ~(p and q) = ~p or ~q if you know about truth tables you can even compare them with truth tables. if anyone needs detailed proof using truth tables do ask :-)