I am given $A,B\subseteq X$ such that $Int A\cup Int B=X$. I need to prove that inclusion $(X,A\cap B)\hookrightarrow (X,A)$ induces epimporhism in realtive homology groups. Is this a right argument:
From the naturality of long exact homology sequences we have that the following diagram commutes
$$ \newcommand{\ra}[1]{\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\xrightarrow{\quad#1\quad}\!\!\!\!\!\!\!\!} \newcommand{\da}[1]{\left\downarrow{\scriptstyle#1}\vphantom{\displaystyle\int_0^1}\right.} % \begin{array}{} H_p(X) & \ra{\pi_1} & H_p(X,A\cap B) \\ \da{i_1} & & \da{i_2} \\ H_p(X) & \ra{\pi_2} & H_p(X,A), \end{array} $$ where $\pi_1$ and $\pi_2$ are projections and $i_1$ and $i_2$ are inclusions. Since, $i_1$ and $\pi_2$ are epimorphisms it follows that the $i_2$ is also epimophim.
I don't need that $Int A\cup Int B=X$?