I don't understand this theorem:
Every point of a non-empty open set $S$ belongs to exactly one component interval of $S$.
Proof: Assume $x\in S$. Then $x$ is contained in some open interval $I$ with $I\subseteq S$. There are many such intervals but the "largest" of these will be the desired component interval. We leave it to the reader to verify that this largest interval is $I_x=(a(x),b(x))$, where
$$a(x)=inf\{ a:(a,x)\subseteq S\}$$ $$b(x)=sup\{ b:(x,b)\subseteq S\}$$
Here $a(x)$ might be $-\infty $ and $b(x)$ might be $+\infty$. Clearly, there is no open interval $J$ such that $I_x\subseteq J \subseteq S $. So $I_x$ is a component interval of $S$ containing $x$. If $J_x$ is another component interval of $S$ containing $x$, then the union $I_x\cup J_x$ is an open interval contained in $S$ and containing both $I_x$ and $J_x$. Hence, by the definition of component interval, it follows that $I_x\cup J_x=I_x$ and $I_x\cup J_x=J_x$ So $I_x=J_x$
How do I prove that this largest interval is $I_x=(a(x),b(x))$, where
$$a(x)=\inf\{a:(a,x)\subseteq S\}$$ $$b(x)=\sup\{b:(x,b)\subseteq S\}?$$
I don't understand how $a(x)$ might be $-\infty $ and $b(x)$ might be $+\infty$. Clearly, there is no open interval $J$ such that $I_x\subseteq J \subseteq S $.