We have a fair, six-sided dice. The questions are
- What's the expected number of rolls to get 1 followed by 1?
- What's the expected number of rolls to get 1 followed by 2?
Let $E$ be the expected time to get '11'. From the geometric distribution, we know that it takes on average 6 rolls to get a 1. Let us roll until we have a 1. Then there is a $1/6$ chance of being done in the next roll $$E = 6 + \frac{1}{6} \cdot 1 + \frac{5}{6}(1 + E) \qquad \Rightarrow \qquad E = 42.$$ I am fairly certain that my solution is correct for the first one, but I am a bit confused about the logic for the second one. I know its very similar to the first one but with a twist. Let $E$ be the expected time to get '12'. Then we first have to roll on average 6 times, after which we have a $1/6$ probability of being done (2), a $4/6$ chance of starting all over (3,4,5,6), and a $1/6$ probability of making no progress (1). Then $$E = 6 + \frac16\cdot 1 + \frac46 \cdot (1 + E) + \frac16 \cdot (1+6) \qquad\Rightarrow\qquad E=48.$$ Is the $(1+6)$ part right? For some reason I don't think it is.
12starting from1. Thus, by the reasoning you used to get the equation on $E$, one gets $F=\frac16+\frac16(1+F)+\frac46(1+E)$. Solving the $(E,F)$-system yields $E=36$. – Did Sep 03 '16 at 20:1812. Since after one such occurrence, one starts afresh to produce another motive12, the mean time to produce one is $36$. The argument breaks for the motive11because once some11is realized, we already have one1at our disposal, possibly, to produce the next11. Hence, after the first11, the next ones are closer from each other, which explains why the time needed to produce the first motive11is $>36$. – Did Sep 03 '16 at 21:02