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The sequence with $n$th term is given below Consider the sequence $A_n = \sin n$ then

(a) The series is convergent as $n\to\infty$

(b) The series is divergent as $n\to\infty$

(c) $\lim_{n\to\infty} \text{ infimum} \sin(n) = 0$

(d) $\lim_{n\to\infty} \sin n = –1$

Alexis Olson
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Muffin
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1 Answers1

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It is answer b). We have $$\limsup_{n \to \infty} \sin(n) = 1$$ and $$\liminf_{n \to \infty} \sin(n) = -1$$ Hence $$\limsup_{n \to \infty} \sin(n) \neq \limsup_{n \to \infty} \sin(n)$$ and thus the sequence $\left(\sin(n)\right)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is divergent.

As a legitimation, I found the part below in Krantz, Real Analysis and Foundations:

enter image description here

TheGeekGreek
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  • it may diverge but i think we can't say it diverges to infinity... – Muffin Sep 06 '16 at 11:25
  • (1) "Divergent" may depend on the given definition of this term, and (2) How would you prove both limits (sup and inf.) equal that? – DonAntonio Sep 06 '16 at 11:28
  • @DonAntonio I am not sure at the moment, I have to think about this. But I've added the reference which I've remembered (which lead me to this statement). – TheGeekGreek Sep 06 '16 at 11:58
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    @TheGeekGreek The limits are correct, but their formal proof is pretty tough. – DonAntonio Sep 06 '16 at 12:24
  • @DonAntonio Found it here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/656930/show-that-a-set-is-dense-in-1-1. Yeah, pretty tough. I do not really like such proofs to be honest. – TheGeekGreek Sep 06 '16 at 12:46