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I need to find the closure of these sets on the ordered square:

$$A = \left\{\left\langle\frac1n,0\right\rangle \mid n\in \mathbb{Z}_+\right\}$$ $$B = \left\{\left\langle1-\frac1n,\frac12\right\rangle \mid n\in \mathbb{Z}_+\right\}$$ $$C = \{\left\langle x,0\right\rangle \mid 0<x<1\}$$ $$D = \left\{\left\langle x,\frac12\right\rangle \mid 0<x<1\right\}$$ $$E =\left \{\left\langle\frac12,y\right\rangle \mid 0<y<1\right\}$$

I know that the closure is just the set itself united with its limit points. For $A$, the set of limit points, I imagine, are $\{\langle 1,0\rangle\}$, that is, the $x$ coordinate is $1$ and the $y$ is $0$. But here is says the reverse. What am I getting wrong?

Following the same reasoning, $B' = \{\langle 1,\frac{1}{2}\rangle\}$ $C' = \{\langle 0,0\rangle,\langle 0,1\rangle\}$

What am I doing wrong?

Anne Bauval
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1 Answers1

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Let $X=[0,1]\times[0,1]$ with the lexicographic order topology, and let $\preceq$ denote the lexicographic order on $X$. The points of $A$ are the points $\left\langle\frac1n,0\right\rangle$ with $n\in\Bbb Z^+$:

$$A=\left\{\langle 1,0\rangle,\left\langle\frac12,0\right\rangle,\left\langle\frac13,0\right\rangle,\left\langle\frac14,0\right\rangle,\ldots\right\}\;.$$

Make a sketch. The set $\left(\frac34,1\right]\times[0,1]$ is an open nbhd of $\langle 1,0\rangle$ that contains no point of $A$ except $\langle 1,0\rangle$, so $\langle 1,0\rangle$ is not a limit point of $A$. In the usual topology on $X$ these points would have $\langle 0,0\rangle$ as a limit point, but it has an open nbhd in $X$ that is disjoint from $A$: $\{0\}\times[0,1)$. (Again, make a sketch.) However, every open nbhd of $\langle 0,1\rangle$ does intersect $A$.

To see this, let $p=\langle 0,1\rangle$, and suppose that $U$ is an open nbhd of $p$. Then there are $u,v\in X$ such that $p\in(u,v)\subseteq U$, where $(u,v)$ is the open interval between $u$ and $v$ in the order topology. This means that $u\prec p\prec v$. If $u=\langle a,b\rangle$ and $v=\langle c,d\rangle$, we have

$$\langle a,b\rangle\prec\langle 0,1\rangle\prec\langle c,d\rangle\;,$$

which implies that $a=0,b<1$, and $c>0$. If you make a sketch, it should be clear that

$$(u,v)=\big(\{0\}\times(b,1]\big)\cup\big((0,c)\times[0,1]\big)\cup\big(\{c\}\times[0,d)\big)\;.$$

If $n>\frac1c$, then $\frac1n<c$, and $\left\langle\frac1n,0\right\rangle\in A\cap(u,v)\subseteq A\cap U$. Thus, every open nbhd of $p=\langle 0,1\rangle$ intersects $A$, and $\langle 0,1\rangle$ is in the closure of $A$.

To complete the argument that $\operatorname{cl}A=A\cup\{\langle 0,1\rangle\}$ you should show that no other point of $X$ besides $\langle 0,1\rangle$ is a limit point of $A$.

Now look at the set $B$: it lies on the line $y=\frac12$, and in the usual topology on $X$ it would converge to the point $\left\langle 1,\frac12\right\rangle$. But $\{1\}\times(0,1)$ is an open nbhd of $\left\langle 1,\frac12\right\rangle$ disjoint from $B$, so $\left\langle 1,\frac12\right\rangle$ clearly isn’t a limit point of $B$. (Specifically, $\{1\}\times(0,1)$ is the open interval from $\langle 1,0\rangle$ to $\langle 1,1\rangle$ in $X$.) If $\langle a,b\rangle\in X$ with $a<1$, it’s easy to find an open nbhd of $\langle a,b\rangle$ that contains no point of $B$ (except $\langle a,b\rangle$ itself, if $\langle a,b\rangle\in B$), so for limit points of $B$ we need to look at points $\langle 1,b\rangle$. The open interval $\{1\}\times(0,1)$ that shows that $\left\langle 1,\frac12\right\rangle$ isn’t a limit point of $B$ works just as well for every point $\langle 1,b\rangle$ with $b>0$, so the only remaining candidate is the point $\langle 1,0\rangle$. Showing that $\langle 1,0\rangle$ is a limit point of $B$ is very much like showing that $\langle 0,1\rangle$ is a limit point of $A$: show that every open interval in $X$ containing $\langle 1,0\rangle$ contains a set of the form $(a,1)\times[0,1]$ for some $a<1$ and therefore contains infinitely many points of $B$.

What you’re missing, I think, is a feel for the lexicographic order. The first point in that order is $\langle 0,0\rangle$. After that the order runs up the segment $\{0\}\times[0,1]$, and $\langle 0,1\rangle$ is the last point on that vertical segment: it comes after every other point on the segment, and before every point of $X$ with a positive $x$-coordinate. Similarly, $\langle 1,1\rangle$ is the last point in the order; if you start there and run through the order backwards, you run down the segment $\{1\}\times[0,1]$, and the last point on that segment that you hit is $\langle 1,0\rangle$: it’s the point of that segment that is ‘closest’ (in the lexicographic order) to any point with an $x$-coordinate less than $1$.

Because of that, you seem to be looking at the product topology rather than the order topology. Take $C$: $\langle 0,0\rangle$ would indeed be a limit point in the usual (product) topology, but in the order topology the set $\{0\}\times[0,1)$ is an open nbhd of $\langle 0,0\rangle$ disjoint from $C$. On the other hand, $A\subseteq C$, so $\operatorname{cl}A\subseteq\operatorname{cl}C$, and we know that $\langle 0,1\rangle$ is a limit point of $A$, so it must be a limit point of $C$ as well. It is true that $\langle 1,0\rangle$ is a limit point of $C$, but probably not for the reason that you had in mind: the argument is similar to the proof that it’s a limit point of $B$. But it also turns out that every point $\langle a,1\rangle$ with $0\le a<1$ is a limit point of $C$:

$$\operatorname{cl}C=\big((0,1]\times\{0\}\big)\cup\big([0,1)\times\{1\}\big)\;$$

all of the bottom edge of the square except $\langle 0,0\rangle$ and all of the top edge except $\langle 1,1\rangle$. To prove this, let $p=\langle a,1\rangle$, where $0\le a<1$, and show that every open nbhd of $p$ contains a set of the form $(a,b)\times[0,1]$ for some $b$ such that $a<b\le 1$; since every such set certainly contains points of $C$, it will follow that $p$ is a limit point of $C$. It still remains to show that no other points are in the closure of $C$, but that’s easy: the complement of the set

$$\big((0,1]\times\{0\}\big)\cup\big([0,1)\times\{1\}\big)$$

is

$$\big(\{0\}\times[0,1)\big)\cup\big((0,1)\times(0,1)\big)\cup\big(\{1\}\times(0,1]\big)\;,$$

which is easily shown to be open in $X$.

I’ll leave the other two for you to think about further. You should find that $\operatorname{cl}D=D\cup\operatorname{cl}C$ and that $\operatorname{cl}E$ is the same as it would be in the usual topology, $\left\{\frac12\right\}\times[0,1]$.

Brian M. Scott
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  • You were absolutely rigth about my assumptions. I understand it now. In $C$, the limit points are $[0,1)\times {1}$, but the closure is the union of the set with its limit points. However, the union you made was not the set with its limit points, it was the set, the point $<1,0>$ and the limit points – Guerlando OCs Sep 12 '16 at 22:30
  • @Guerlando: The point $\langle 1,0\rangle$ is also a limit point of $C$: every open nbhd of it intersects $C$. (For that matter, every point of $C$ is also a limit point of $C$.) By the way, you can get proper angle brackets with \langle and \rangle. – Brian M. Scott Sep 12 '16 at 23:23
  • I am sensing something wrong in first example. The neighborhood you gave does not contain (1,0) then how it can be neighborhood of (1,0). And (1,0) is indeed in closure of A as it is in A itself. – ogirkar Feb 17 '19 at 14:44
  • @Believer: You’re quite right, and I’ve corrected it. At this late date I don’t know what I was thinking at the time, but I suspect that for some reason I was thinking of $\langle 1,1\rangle$ rather than $\langle 1,0\rangle$. – Brian M. Scott Oct 31 '20 at 15:26
  • @Brian M. Scott , I'm probably completely missing something obvious, but why is ${1} \times [0, 1)$ open in the dictionary order topology on the ordered square (as you mentioned)? Since there are elements $\le \langle 1,0 \rangle $, so it's not an extrema. For example an element less than it is $ \langle x, 1 \rangle, x \in [0, 1)$ . Thus the lower limit of the interval can't be included. – dylan7 Jan 10 '21 at 22:42
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    @dylan7: Oy, I must have been half asleep when I wrote that! Let’s make that $\left(\frac34,1\right]\times[0,1]$. Thanks! – Brian M. Scott Jan 10 '21 at 23:51