I'm wondering if it is possible to solve for a negative base logarithm, $-e$ for $e$. From Euler's formula, we can find the logarithm of complex numbers in an instrumental fashion. However, would a negative base of $e$ as a logarithm still make sense?
4 Answers
$$x=\log_{-e}e \implies (-e)^x=e \\ e^{1/x}=-e \\ \frac{e^{1/x}}e=-1 \\ e^{1/x-1}=-1$$
Now, take the identity that $e^{i\pi}=-1$
$$e^{1/x-1}=e^{i\pi} \\ \frac1x-1=i\pi \\ \frac1x = i\pi+1 \\~\\ x=\frac1{i\pi+1}$$
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1Why $e^{i\pi}=-1$ and not $e^{-i\pi}=-1$ or something else? – Henry Sep 20 '16 at 22:24
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@Henry I'm coming back to this literally years later, but I somehow just saw your comment. I think you're right, the solution isn't complete. But I'm also pretty sure that in order to keep the natural logarithm a function, it's usually taken that $log(-1)=\pi i$, kind of how $\arcsin(1)=\pi/2$, even though there are infinitely many values whose sine is 1 – Polygon Nov 19 '19 at 03:29
$$\log_ab=\frac{\log b}{\log a}$$
$$\log (-e)=1+i\pi$$
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E.H.E is correct. $\log(-\mathrm{e}) = \log(-1,\mathrm{e}) = \log(-1)+\log(\mathrm{e}) = i\pi + 1$ – poweierstrass Sep 20 '16 at 21:37
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Well, this is one of an infinite number of solutions. For this particular one, the principal branch is presumed. – Mark Viola Sep 20 '16 at 21:41
Your log is in base $-e$. You can always change basis according to the law:
$$\log_b(x) = \frac{\log_d\ x}{\log_d\ b}$$
Where $d$ is your new basis.
Let's choose a new basis like $+e$ and you get
$$\log_{-e} e = \frac{\log_e e}{\log_e (-e)}$$
Now $\log_e e = 1$ and thanks to complex analysis you have
$$\log_e(-e) = \log_e(e\cdot -1) = \log_e(e) + \log_e(-1) = 1 + i\pi$$
Hence
$$\log_{-e} e = \frac{1}{1 + i\pi}$$
Eventually you can rationalise and find
$$\frac{1}{1+i\pi} \cdot \frac{1-i\pi}{1-i\pi} = \frac{1-i\pi}{1 + \pi^2}$$
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By definition, $\log_b(z)$ is any complex number $t$ such that $b^t = z$. But $b^t$ is defined as $\exp(t \log b)$, where $\log b$ is any branch of the natural logarithm of $b$, i.e. any complex number $s$ such that $\exp(s) = b$.
In your case you have $\log (-e) = 1 + (2n+1)i\pi$ for arbitrary integer $n$, and
$$\exp(t (1+(2n+1)i\pi)) = e = \exp(1)$$ iff for some integer $m$,
$$ t(1+(2n+1)i\pi) = 1 + 2mi\pi$$
i.e. $$t = \dfrac{1+2mi\pi}{1+(2n+1)i\pi}$$
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