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Ir order to show that $f(z)$ is constant I need to show that its partial derivatives are all $0$, that is:

$$\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial x} = -\frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = 0$$

I tried this:

If $|f(z)|$ is constant, then $\sqrt{u^2+v^2} = c \implies$

$$\frac{2u}{2\sqrt{u^2+v^2}}=0\implies u = 0$$ and $$\frac{-2v}{2\sqrt{u^2+v^2}}=0 \implies v = 0$$

That's strange because I didn't even use Cauchy-Riemann and I tought it would be necessary. Also, how to do the part of the argument?

6 Answers6

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A possible problem with your argument is that $u$ being related to $v$.

In a simplified example with $u=x$, $v=y$, let $\sqrt{x^2+y^2}=1$. When we take a "derivative" of this with respect to $x$, we consider $y$ as a dependent variable, not an independent one. Of course, this does not yield $x=y=0$.

So, in this one, we need Cauchy-Riemann.

Sungjin Kim
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Careful! You're treating the functions $u,v$ as variables. You should be differentiating the modulus $|f|$ with respect to $x$ and $y$, not with respect to $u$ and $v$. So, e.g., $$ 0 = \frac{\partial |f|}{\partial x}(x,y) = \frac{uu_x + vv_x}{|f(x,y)|} $$ and so long as $|f|\neq 0$ (why may you assume this?) you may conclude that the vector $(u,v)$ is orthogonal to the vector $(u_x,v_x)$. Likewise, $(u,v)$ is orthogonal to $(u_y,v_y)$. Now you are in a position to use Cauchy-Riemann ...

For the argument, recall from polar coordinates that $\tan \arg(w) = y/x$. Then differentiate as above and apply Cauchy-Riemann.

Neal
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The equation $\sqrt{u^2+v^2} = c$ implies the pair $(u,v)$ is constrained to lie on the circle of radius $c$ centered at $0$. It is impossible for $u$ to change while $v$ remains fixed and at the same time stay on that circle. But the derivative of $\sqrt{u^2+v^2}$ with respect to $u$, which you computed, is not valid unless you're talking about $u$ changing while $v$ is fixed.

Now imagine a tiny circle of (positive) radius $\varepsilon\ll1$ centered at $0$, and $dz$ as a tiny complex number with $|dz|=\varepsilon$, and let $dz$ change as $\arg(dz)$ goes from $0$ to $2\pi$. What then happens to $f(z_0+dz)$, where $z_0$ is in the interior of the domain of $f$? If $f'(z_0)\ne 0$, then $f'(z)$ is close to $f'(z_0)$ whenever $z$ is close to $z_0$, so $f(z_0+dz)-f(z_0)\approx f'(z_0)\,dz$ goes around an approximate circle of radius $|f'(z_0)|\cdot\varepsilon$ centered at $f(z_0)$. It cannot go around that tiny circle while remaining on the big circle $\sqrt{u^2+v^2} = c$.

Heuristics like that are worth knowing about, but are not what is considered logically rigorous. For the logically rigorous version, Cauchy–Riemann will serve.

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Here's another proof: Suppose $|f(z)|$ is constant, then so is $|f(z)|^2$. Since constant functions are analytic, then we have that \begin{align} 0=\frac{\partial}{\partial \bar z}|f(z)|^2= \frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar z} \bar f + f\frac{\partial \bar f}{\partial \bar z} = \frac{\partial f}{\partial \bar z}\bar f + f\overline{\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}}. \end{align} Since $f$ is analytic, then $\partial_{\bar z} f =0$ which means \begin{align} f\overline{\frac{\partial f}{\partial z}} =0 \ \ \Rightarrow \ \ \frac{\partial f}{\partial z} =0. \end{align} Hence $f$ is constant.

Jacky Chong
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Use the Cauchy-Riemann equations in polar coordinates! If you're not familiar, see this question: Proof of Cauchy Riemann Equations in Polar Coordinates

From here, basically the standard argument applies. If one is constant, the other is also constant, meaning the function is constant.

A. Thomas Yerger
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Suppose $f'(a) \neq 0$ for some $a$ in $\Bbb{C}$. Then as $\delta \to 0$ $f(a + \delta) = f(a) + \delta f'(a) + o(\delta)$. Since $|f(a + \delta) - (f(a) + \delta f'(a))|$ is $o(\delta)$, and $|f(a) - (f(a) + \delta f'(a))| = |\delta f'(a)|$ is not $o(\delta)$, for small $\delta$ $f(a + \delta)$ is closer to $f(a) + \delta f'(a)$ than $f(a)$ is. Let $\delta = r \alpha$, where $\alpha f'(a)$ is an outward pointing normal vector to the circle $|z| = |f(a)|$ at $f(a)$ and $r$ is a positive real. As $r \to 0$, $f(a + \delta)$ is closer to $f(a) + \delta f'(a)$ than $f(a)$ is. But $f(a)$ is clearly the closest point to $f(a) + \delta f'(a)$ on the circle $|z| = |f(a)|$, so this contradicts the assumption of constant modulus.

I like this proof because it doesn't really use any machinery of complex analysis-- it's more explicitly geometric.

Vik78
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