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I would like to show that

$$\lim_{\sigma \to 0} \int{f(x+\varepsilon)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon} = f(x)$$

This is reasonable because $\int{f(x+\varepsilon)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}}$ is the average of $f(x+\varepsilon)$ weighted with $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}$, and closing $\sigma$ to be $0$ we give more importance to $f(x+\varepsilon)$ when $\varepsilon$ is close to $0$. I apologize if my explanation lack of formality but I just studied Software Engineering, not math. At the moment I consider $\varepsilon, \sigma, x$ to be pure numbers, not vectors or matrixes.

By the way, I started to think to divide the integral in three different component: the first one from $-\infty$ to $-0$, the second one from $-0$ to $+0$, and the third one from $+0$ to infinite, and I would like to show that if $\sigma \to 0$ the second integral will become $f(x)$ and the first and the third one will become 0.

In other words

$$\lim_{\sigma \to 0}\lim_{\theta \to 0}\left[ \int_{-\infty}^{-\theta}{f(x+\varepsilon)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon}+ \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta}{f(x+\varepsilon)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^"}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon}+ \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty}{f(x+\varepsilon)\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon}\right] $$

I started from the integral in the middle. I thought that I could write

$$\lim_{a \to 0} \int_{-a}^{+a}{g(x)\mathrm{d}x} = \int_{-a}^{+a}{ \lim_{x \to 0} g(x) \mathrm{d}x}$$

And actually I don't know if this is correct or not. By the way I did the following steps for the integral in the middle:

$$\lim_{\theta \to 0} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} f(x+\varepsilon) \left({e^{-\varepsilon^2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta}\lim_{\varepsilon \to 0} f(x+\varepsilon) \left({e^{-\varepsilon^2}}\right)^{\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta}\lim_{\varepsilon \to 0} f(x+\varepsilon) \left(-\varepsilon^2+1\right)^{\frac{1}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$

$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} f(x+\varepsilon) \left(-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}+1\right)\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$

the last step is provided because $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(1+x)^{\alpha}}{x} = \alpha$ and so $\lim_{x \to 0} (1+x)^{\alpha} = \alpha x + 1$ I continued as the following:

$$\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma^3} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} -f(x+\varepsilon) \varepsilon^2\mathrm{d} \varepsilon + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma} F(x+\varepsilon)$$

($\sigma > 0 $) Now I don't know how to continue. I would like to show that:

$$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma^3} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} -f(x+\varepsilon) \varepsilon^2\mathrm{d} \varepsilon + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma} F(x+\varepsilon) = f(x)$$

And then I think I know how to show that the integrals from $-\infty$ to $-\theta$ and the one from $+\theta$ to $+\infty$ are going to 0.

I'm sorry if my explanation it is very bad or if I made some terrible mistake. I'm not a matematician, but I would like to learn ho to become :). P.s if you can suggest me some tag.

Sam
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  • Watch out for typos: the exponential is most probably $$e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}$$ instead of $$e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{\sigma}}$$ then use the change of variable $$\varepsilon=\sigma t$$ for a one-line proof. – Did Sep 24 '16 at 17:13
  • wow thanks for the correction, this changes a bit everything. But what is $t$? you mean that i should $\lim_{t \to 0}$ and substitute $\varepsilon = \sigma t$ ? In that case would I decompose the intergal in three parts like I did or not? Thanks (now I'll correct the question) – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 17:19

2 Answers2

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Hints: It is convenient (if not necessary) to assume $f$ continuous. Also better assume that $f$ is bounded (although less may do). Your constants are not placed correctly. They should be such that when $f$ is constant you get that constant. Your idea of splitting up the integral is fine. You may do that on the difference between the two sides:

$$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma}\int \left(f(x+\epsilon) -f(x)\right) \ e^{-\frac{\epsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} d\epsilon $$

The integral from $-\theta$ to $\theta$ becomes small when $\sigma\rightarrow 0$ because of the continuity of $f$. And the other terms because the exponential becomes very small.

H. H. Rugh
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  • Sorry, I can't understand why you add $$-f(x)$$ – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 17:28
  • Showing $\lim A = B$ is the same as showing $\lim (A-B) = 0$. – Neal Sep 24 '16 at 17:33
  • wait.. $f(x)$ should't be outside the integral? I have something like $$\lim \int f(x-\varepsilon) .. d \varepsilon = f(x)$$ – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 17:36
  • Okay maybe I understood, it is because i did something like $$ \lim_{\sigma \to 0} \int f(x-\varepsilon) .. d \varepsilon = \int \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0} f(x + \varepsilon) .. d \varepsilon$$ .. am I right? Sorry but I'm a bit slow with this stuff – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 17:40
  • As I mentioned you should make sure that if $f(x)=c$ (a constant) then your integral should evaluate to $c$ (for any $x$). Now, $f(x)$ is a constant with respect to $\epsilon$ so you may take it inside the integral (as the rest should integrate to one). – H. H. Rugh Sep 24 '16 at 17:46
  • Okay, cool, I get it. I can bring $f(x)$ inside because $f(x)$ is constant respect $\varepsilon$ and more $$\int{c \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon}=c$$ I need just something more. Then I need to say f(x) is continuos, so that the integral between $-\theta$ and $\theta$ becomes 0, because both the density of the normal and the difference between $f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)$ go to 0. I can show this by using $$\lim_{a \to 0} \int_{-a}^{+a}g(x)dx = \int_{-a}^{a} \lim_{x \to 0} g(x)dx$$ – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 19:57
  • then It remains to show that the other two integral tends to 0, and this is in my opinion a bit more tricky, because it is true that the exponential goes to zero but the difference between $f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)$ could be superexponential, for instance. Do you may suggest that I can bring $\lim_{\sigma \to 0}$ inside the integrator, and as you suggested f(x) is bounded, $f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)$ is also bounded then $$\lim_{\sigma \to 0} (f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}}e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} = 0$$ – Sam Sep 24 '16 at 20:02
  • You would normally have to proceed in steps: Given $\delta>0$ you first find and fix $\theta>0$ so that $|f(x+\epsilon)-f(x)|<\delta/2$ for $|\epsilon|<\theta$. Then the middle part is taken care of (never exceeds $\delta/2$). Now given that value of $\theta$, the exponentials go fast to zero for $|\epsilon|>\theta$ as $\sigma\rightarrow 0$. Now if $|f|\leq M$ is uniformly bounded then the contributions from the two outer integrals can be made smaller than $\delta/2$ as well choosing $\sigma$ small enough. – H. H. Rugh Sep 24 '16 at 20:09
  • @H. H. Rugh Okay, I think I'm close to the solution. Given the assumption of continuity of f and f unbounded i can say: let $\delta>0$ be small as wish, there will be a $\theta$ such that $$|f(x+\theta)-f(x)| < \delta/2$$ because $f$ is continuos. Then 1) $$\int_{-\theta}^{+\theta}\left(f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)\right) e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} \delta/2 e^{-\frac{\theta^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$ and $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} \delta/2 e^{-\frac{\theta^2}{2\sigma^2}} = 0 $$ – Sam Sep 25 '16 at 21:13
  • so $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta}\left(f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x)\right) e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = 0$$ 2) $$\int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} \left( f(x-\varepsilon)-f(x) \right) e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} M e^{-\frac{\theta^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$ thus $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} M e^{-\frac{\theta^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = 0 $$ – Sam Sep 25 '16 at 21:13
  • (im not sure about this last sentence because inside the integral I have a constant, small as wish, but if I solve the integral, I see that this constant is multiplied by $\infty$. I know I didn't follow your solution as proposed: I'm not actually able to do it. The integral between $-\theta$ and $+\theta$ it is okay. I'm not sure about the integral to $\infty$, or better... I'm almost sure that I'm doing something wrong. I would like to understand better what will you do with that one. Thanks for your patience. – Sam Sep 25 '16 at 21:14
  • Okay don't worry, I get it. $$M \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty}e^{-\frac{\epsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon$$ is bounded! And I can reduce it as much as I want, by reducing $\sigma$. Thanks a LOT! – Sam Sep 25 '16 at 21:23
  • Just one remark: In part one the limit (when you include the constants in front) is $\delta/2$ (and not zero). But as $\delta$ was arbitray this means that the result is arbitrarily close to zero, whence zero. – H. H. Rugh Sep 25 '16 at 21:29
  • Yes I got it. Even in the steps that I've done here there are again errors. This night I thought a lot about this. I think now I can write a more carefull demonstration, because I think I got all your suggestion. I'll write it as answer of my question, I'll be happy if you'll comment it showing me the steps that are erroneus or that you will have done in different way. – Sam Sep 26 '16 at 05:56
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Thanks to @H.H.Rough now I can answer my own question, for those ones that are slow like me and needs more passages.

[Some edits by H.H.Rugh in the following:]

We assume $f:{\Bbb R} \rightarrow {\Bbb R}$ continuous. We also assume that $\forall a \in \mathbb{R} :|f(a)| \leq M <+\infty$.

We want to show that $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x+\varepsilon) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{-\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = f(x)$$

For $g\in \mathbb{R}$ a constant we have $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} g \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{-\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = g$$ because the integral over the density function makes 1. Thus we want to show that $$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} (f(x+\varepsilon) - f(x)) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{-\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = 0$$

Let $\delta>0$ be arbitrary. Then by continuity of $f$ there is $\theta=\theta_\delta > 0$ so that $|f(x+\varepsilon)-f(x)| < \frac{\delta}{2}$ for every $|\varepsilon|\leq \theta$. Because the normal density function is positive and the integral over its domain is one we have: $$0 \leq \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon \leq 1$$ and we deduce that: $$ \int_{-\theta}^{+\theta} \left| f(x+\varepsilon)-f(x)\right| \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \frac{\delta}{2}$$

Given the $\theta$ from above we may find $\sigma_\delta > 0$ small enough so that for every $0<\sigma<\sigma_\delta$ we have: $$ \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \frac{\delta}{8M}$$ Since $|f(x+\varepsilon)-f(x)| \leq 2M$ we obtain: $$\int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} \left| f(x+\varepsilon)-f(x)\right| \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon \leq 2M \int_{+\theta}^{+\infty} \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \frac{\delta}{4}$$

By symmetry we also have for such values of $\sigma$. $$\int_{-\infty}^{-\theta} \left|f(x+\varepsilon)-f(x)\right| \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} e^{-\frac{\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \frac{\delta}{4}$$

Combining the above we see that for every $0<\sigma<\sigma_\delta$ we have: $$\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \left|f(x+\varepsilon) - f(x)\right| \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{-\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon < \delta$$

As $\delta>0$ was arbitrary we conclude:

$$\lim_{\sigma \to +0} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} (f(x+\varepsilon) - f(x)) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{-\varepsilon^2}{2\sigma^2}}\mathrm{d}\varepsilon = 0$$

H. H. Rugh
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Sam
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  • This is more or less ok. Some minor things can be improved. If it is ok to you I can try to edit directly into your solution? – H. H. Rugh Sep 26 '16 at 07:53
  • Of course yes, you are welcome. – Sam Sep 26 '16 at 08:57
  • Great. Thanks very much. I'll make few other question about this integral in theese days, trying to show some other property. I will feel free to notify you so you may answer that question. I learnt a lot thanks to your suggestion. – Sam Sep 26 '16 at 09:30