2

Let $D$ be the distribution in $\mathbb{R}^3$ generated by the vector fields $X=ye^x \ \partial_y-\partial_z$, $Y=\partial_x$.

  1. Find an integral submanifold for $D$ passing for $(1,0,0)$
  2. Say whether $D$ is integrable or not.
  3. Say whether an integral submanifold for $D$ passing for $(1,1,1)$ exists. If so, write it explicitly.

Since $[X,Y]=-ye^x\ \partial_y$ which is not, in general, a linear composition of $X$ and $Y$, $D$ is not involutive, hence not integrable. Some points of $\mathbb{R}^3$ are not contained in an integral submanifold.

General PDE's system

Now, for a fixed $q \in \mathbb{R}^3$ I'm looking for a 2-dimensional immersed submanifold of $\mathbb{R}^3$ passing for $q$, i.e. the image of an injective immersion $\sigma$, whose tangent space is described everywhere by $X$ and $Y$. The problem can be expressed in terms of a PDE's system: $$\sigma: A \subset \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^3, \quad \sigma(t,s)=(\sigma^1,\sigma^2,\sigma^3)(t,s), \quad S=\sigma(A) \subset \mathbb{R}^3$$ $$T_{\sigma(t,s)}S\equiv <\frac{\partial \sigma}{\partial t}(t,s),\frac{\partial \sigma}{\partial s}(t,s)>=D_{\sigma(t,s)}\equiv <X \left( \sigma(t,s) \right),Y \left( \sigma(t,s) \right)>$$ $$\sigma(t_0,s_0)=q $$

which I don't have any experience with.

Simple solution for $(1,0,0)$

Without using the system, the solution for the point $q=(1,0,0)$ is simple. In general $$D_{(a,b,c)}=<(0,be^a,-1),(1,0,0) > = \{(x,y,z):y+be^az=0 \}$$ I'm asking

  1. $q \in S$
  2. $T_pS=D_p \quad \forall p \in S$

Then in particular $T_qS=D_q$, where $D_{(1,0,0)}$ is just the plane $\{y=0\}$.

Exceptionally $q$ belongs to this plane, which then is a good candidate to be the integral submanifold, fulfilling condition 1. We have to check condition 2 for $S=\{y=0\}$: since $S$ is a plane passing for the origin, $T_pS=S$. What is more, for $p \in S$ , $p=(a,0,c)$, and then $D_p=\{y=0\}=S$. So both the conditions are fulfilled and $\{y=0\}$ is in integral submanifold of $D$ passing for $(1,0,0)$.

General solution

The same trick won't work for $q=(1,1,1)$ since $D_{(1,1,1)}=\{y+ez=0\}$ which does not contain $q$.

Is there a general way to continue from this point, or a test so say whether this integral submanifold exists or not?

What I would try is follow the fluxes of $X$ and $Y$ from $(1,1,1)$ and see what happens. If the submanifold for $(1,1,1)$ exists, I should be able to parametrize it this way. This works in the involutive case (Frobenius theorem), but in this non-involutive case the fluxes do not commute, so which should be followed first?

The flux of $X$ is $\theta_t(x,y,z)= \left( x,ye^{te^x},-t+z \right)$, the flux of $Y$ is $\alpha_s(x,y,z)=\left(s+x,y,z \right)$. $$\theta_t \cdot \alpha_s (1,1,1)=\left(s+1,e^{te^{s+1}},-t+1 \right)$$ $$\alpha_s \cdot \theta_t (1,1,1)=\left(s+1,e^{te},-t+1 \right)$$

Case 1

Using $\theta_t \cdot \alpha_s$ we obtain the submanifold parametrized by $(t,s) \mapsto (x,y,z)=\left(s+1,e^{te^{s+1}},-t+1 \right)$, i.e. $s=x-1,t=1-z$ and $$S= \{y=e^{(1-z)e^x}\}$$ $$T_{(a,b,c)}S=<\left(0,be^a,-1 \right),\left(1,b(1-c)e^a,0 \right)>$$ where of course $(a,b,c) \in S$ and $b=e^{(1-c)e^a}$. I would like this space to be $D_{(a,b,c)}$, so these two vectors should fulfill $y+be^az=0$, which does not happen (the first one is ok, but the second is not).

Case 2

Using $\alpha_s \cdot \theta_t$ we obtain the submanifold parametrized by $(t,s) \mapsto (x,y,z)=\left(s+1,e^{te},-t+1 \right)$, i.e. $s=x-1,t=1-z$ and $$S= \{y=e^{(1-z)e}\}$$ $$T_{(a,b,c)}S=<\left(0,be,-1 \right),\left(1,0,0 \right)>$$ $b=e^{(1-c)e^a}$. Again these two vectors should fulfill $y+be^az=0$, which does not happen (the second one is ok, but the first is not).

Does this mean the integral submanifold for $(1,1,1)$ does not exist?

DavideL
  • 525
  • 1
    Do you know differential forms and the differential forms version of Frobenius? – Ted Shifrin Sep 24 '16 at 17:50
  • I know (a bit of) forms, but not the differential forms version of Frobenius. I'll look up for it, thanks for the hint. – DavideL Sep 24 '16 at 18:26
  • Cool. Come back and ask me more if you want. You should find that the relevant $1$-form for your question is $\omega = dy+ye^x,dz$. From this, and the Frobenius Theorem, both your answers will be evident. :) – Ted Shifrin Sep 24 '16 at 18:28
  • I gave it a quick reading, and it looks like this version of the theorem involves some theory we haven't covered during the course. Since this was a part of the exam, I'd like to know how it could be solved with vector fields (even though I don't doubt forms approach provides a quicker solution!) – DavideL Sep 24 '16 at 18:38
  • So I guess I'm a bit confused. Did you not prove that the distribution is involutive (closed under bracket) if and only if it is integrable? Since $[X,Y]_{(1,1,1)}$ is not in the span of $X$ and $Y$ at $(1,1,1)$, there can be no local integral submanifold passing through $(1,1,1)$. You do not need to be checking commutativity of flows—you know they don't commute. But you do need the proof that integrable implies involutive. Did you not do that in your course? If not, prove that! – Ted Shifrin Sep 24 '16 at 18:44
  • Thanks, this is enlightening! We did prove that involutive iff integrable iff completely integrable, but I was a bit confused about the concept of integrability. I was thinking integrable iff every point is contained in an integral submanifold, and I didn't realize (the obvious fact) that this could be used as a test for single points. – DavideL Sep 24 '16 at 19:05
  • Well, locally near single points, yes :) – Ted Shifrin Sep 24 '16 at 19:12

0 Answers0