The question is related to this one.
Let $f(x,y) = xy$ and $g(x,y) = f(x,y)^2 = x^2y^2$. Now consider the fraction of partial derivatives \begin{align} \frac{\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}} = \frac{2xy^2}{y} = 2xy \end{align}
I was wondering if I can cancel $\partial x$ in the fraction, i.e., \begin{align} \frac{\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}}{\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}} = \frac{\partial g}{\partial f} = \frac{\partial f^2}{\partial f} = 2f = 2xy. \end{align}
- Is this some general principle or coincidence?