Following Daniel's hint:
Let $\rho:X \to L^{1}(0,1)$ be the map that takes a function and produces its restriction to $(0,1)$. Notably, this map is bounded with $\|\rho\|\leq 1$, and is surjective (by the properties of $X$ from the problem statement).
Consider the induced map $\bar \rho: X/\ker \rho \to L^1(0,1)$. This map is not only bounded, but is also injective, with the same range as $\rho$. In other words, $\bar \rho$ must be an invertible (bijective), bounded linear map between two Banach spaces.
By the open mapping theorem (more specifically, its corollary the bounded inverse theorem) we may conclude that $\bar \rho^{-1}$ is bounded. Now, if you consider what exactly it means for $\rho^{-1}$ to be bounded, you'll find that you have completely answered the question.