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I am a student who is very new to mechanics. I have to calculate the Euler-Lagrangian equation for a double pendulum, which is okay. But the angle of the the second pendulum is measured with respect to the first pendulum, and not the vertical. In this case, how do I proceed? Since we need to calculate it with respect to the two angles as coordinates.

Crudely drawn double pendulum

Parcly Taxel
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1 Answers1

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The Euler-Larange equations don't care what coordinates you use. That is the beauty of them. You just need to be able to compute the kinetic and potential energies of the system based on the coordinates you choose. Here, the potential of the mass connected to the support is $mgL_1(1-cos(\theta_1))$, where $L_1$ is the length of the rod supporting mass $1$. You need to compute the potential energy of the second mass in terms of $\theta_1$ and $\theta_2$ and the kinetic energies of both masses using the time derivatives of your variables. Once you have those, you plug them into the Euler-Lagrange equations and get differential equations in your variables. The good thing about this approach is that it works for any variables that specify the state of the system and allow you to compute the kinetic and potential energies. This lets you take advantage of symmetries n the system. Often the equations separate more easily if you choose the right variables.

Ross Millikan
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  • Thanks! But I am still a little confused. I have the potential energy of the first mass as - (m1+m2)gL1cos(theta1) and for the second mass, I have it as m2gL2cos(theta1+theta2). I apologize for the terrible way of writing the terms! – Theoryofmech1912 Oct 04 '16 at 03:36
  • How can the potential energy of the first mass depend on $m_2$? The potential energy of the second is also not correct. It is correct if $\theta_2=0$, but ignores the potential energy of $m_2$ based on $\theta_1$ – Ross Millikan Oct 04 '16 at 03:51
  • Thanks! I got a bit confused, sorry about that. So now, I have the following equations. – Theoryofmech1912 Oct 04 '16 at 16:05
  • (P.E.)1=m1g(1-cos(θ1))L1
    (P.E.)2=m2g(1-cos(θ1+θ2))L2 (K.E.)1=½(m1(θ1’)²L1²) (K.E.)2=½(m2(θ1+θ2)’².L2²) How do you write using Math notation? Thanks again!
    – Theoryofmech1912 Oct 04 '16 at 16:17
  • A tutorial for MathJax is here, also see the FAQ for this site. You should edit those equations into your question so they are easier to find. If you reach a solution you are encouraged to answer your own question. Otherwise, put your new question below the equations. – Ross Millikan Oct 04 '16 at 22:53