Let $f$ be an entire function. Suppose that for each $a\in \Bbb R$ there exists at least one coefficient $c_n$ in $f(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty c_n(z-a)^n$ which is zero.
Then:
- $f^{n}(0)=0$ for infinitely many $n\ge 0$.
- $f^{2n}(0)=0$ for every $n\ge 0$.
- $f^{2n+1}(0)=0$ for every $n\ge 0$.
- $\exists k\ge 0$ such that $f^{n}(0)=0$ for all $n\ge k$.
My try:
Since $a\in \Bbb R$ is uncountable and $c_n$ is countable so there exists $b\in \Bbb R$ such that $c_n=0$ for infinitely many $n$ where $c_n=\dfrac{f^{n}(b)}{n!}\implies f^{n}(b)=0$.
So I feel that the correct options should be $1,4$.
But how can I show that $f^{n}(0)=0$ for infinitely many $n\ge 0$.
I only have $f^{n}(b)=0$ for infinitely many $n\ge 0$.But the question demands $f^{n}(0)=0$ for infinitely many $n\ge 0$. Please give some hints.