I am reading about elliptic integrals in Chapter 2 of "Elliptic Curves" by McKean and Moll. There is a critical statement at the start of section 2.9 I am having some trouble understanding. It says that the differential equation for the Weierstrass $\wp$ function $$dx = \frac{d\wp}{\wp'} = \frac{1}{2}[(\wp - e_1)(\wp - e_2)(\wp - e_3)]^{-1/2}$$ implies that $$x = \frac{1}{2}\int_{\infty}^{\wp(x)}[(y - e_1)(y - e_2)(y - e_3)]^{-1/2}dy$$ up to periods.
I don't understand how to make sense of the integration limits. It seems like you should just take the indefinite integral. Differentiating with FTC gives $$\frac{1}{\varphi'(x)} = \frac{1}{2}[(\wp(x) - e_1)(\wp(x) - e_2)(\wp(x) - e_3)]^{-1/2}$$ as desired but this should be true if $\infty$ is replaced by a random constant or if $x$ is replaced by $x + C$ for any constant $C$. The only reason I can think of for taking $\infty$ is that $\vert \wp(x) \vert$ ranges from $0$ to $\infty$.