0

Given $f(x,k) = 2$ for $0 \leq k \leq x \leq 1$.

Find The cumulative probability distribution $$ F(k_0) = P(K\leq k_0) $$

The hint is you must integrate at the joint. Does anyone know how to do this problem? I think you need to use a double integral but I am not sure

Chinny84
  • 14,186
  • 2
  • 22
  • 31

1 Answers1

1

$$\Pr(K\leq k_0)=\int\int f(x,k)g(x,k)dxdk$$ Here $f(x,k)=2$ if $0\leq k\leq x\leq1$ and $f(x,k)=0$ otherwise.

And $g(x,k)=1$ if $k\leq k_0$ and $g(x,k)=0$ otherwise.

drhab
  • 151,093