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For what $n\in\mathbb N^*$ does it hold, for $x$ and $y$ integers, $$x^4+y^4\equiv 0\pmod n\implies x\equiv y\equiv 0\pmod n$$

I'm after a characterization of $n$ that can be efficiently tested for $n$ in the millions. A sufficient condition with few exceptions would still help.

fgrieu
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1 Answers1

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For $n$ prime, this holds iff $−1$ is not fourth power mod $n$, aka a biquadratic residue.

If $a^4\equiv−1 \bmod p$, then $a$ has order $8$ mod $p$ and so $8$ divides $p-1$, by Lagrange's theorem of group theory.

Conversely, since the units mod $p$ form a cyclic group, there is an element $a$ of order $8$ when $8$ divides $p-1$. For this $a$, we have $a^4\equiv−1 \bmod p$.

Therefore,

$−1$ is fourth power mod $p$ iff $p \equiv 1 \bmod 8$

and so

$−1$ is not fourth power mod $p$ iff $p \equiv 2, 3, 5, 7 \bmod 8$

For $n$ not prime, quartic reciprocity will help.

lhf
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