I am trying to work on the following problem, and can't seem to quite figure out how to work out the marginal probability density functions:
Given
$ f(x,y) = \begin{cases} k & 0 \leq x \leq 2\,,\quad 0 \leq y \leq 1\,,\quad 2y \leq x \\[1mm] 0 & \mbox{otherwise} \end{cases} $
I am asked to find $k$ so that $f(x,y)$ is a probability density function. I worked it out to $k=1$, but then I'm asked to find the marginal probability densities for $x$ and $y$ and I'm hitting a bit of a roadblock.
In order to find the x marginal, I integrate against $y$:
$f_x = \int_{o}^{1}dy = \dots = 1$
That's interesting - the marginal probability of $x$ is 1? Well, maybe. Let's move on.
In order to find the y marginal, I integrate against $x$:
$f_y = \int_{o}^{2}dx = \dots = 2$
Now clearly this is wrong. I am 99% sure that my calculation of $k$ is correct, and that the issue is that my integration limits are borked.
If someone could explain how to find the marginal here, I'd appreciate it.