Firstly: Am I interpreting the correspondence theorem for modules correctly? If I have $B$ a submodule of $A$, then the submodules of $A/B$ correspond to the submodules of $A$ that contain $B$?
Now if that is the case, it seems then that if $C$ is a nontrivial submodule of $A/B$ then $C$ contains $B$ and $A/B/C$ is well defined. But else if $C$ does not contain $B$, then $C$ is not a submodule of $A/B$ is that correct?
Secondly: Would it be correct to say that $A/B/C=A/C/B$. In my mind, it seems that for $A/B/C$ to be well defined, $C$ must be a submodule of $A/B$ and hence $C$ contains $B$, and hence $A/C/B=A/C$, is that correct?
But then to my confusion, say $A$ is a $3$-dim $R$-module generated by $\{a,b,c\}$ and $B=\langle \{b\}\rangle, C=\langle \{c\}\rangle$. Then $A/B$ has generators $\{a+B,c+B\}$ and the submodule of this generated by $\{c+B\}$ corresponds to a submodule of $A$ that does not contain $B$.