Given a set $M = \{(x,y,z)\in \mathbb R^3 | x^2+y^2-z^2=1\}$ and a function $\alpha \colon M \to S^1 \times \mathbb R$, $$\alpha(x, y, z) = \left(\frac{(x,y)}{\sqrt{1+z^2}},z\right)$$
Is there a smart method of showing that $\alpha$ is a diffeomorphism? I already showed that $M$ is an immersed submanifold of $\mathbb R^3$.
Is it enough to show that it is a bijection, the map is smooth, and the jacobian is nowhere 0?