So right now I'm working through Topology by Munkres and reviewing some basic set theory. I came across the following problem:
Show $f(A-B) \supset f(A)-f(B)$ with equality iff $f$ is injective.
The problem I'm having here is that I feel I can show equality without $f$ being injective. My proof to show the reverse inclusion goes as follows: take $y \in f(A-B)$. This means that $y = f(a)$ for some $a \in A-B$. So, as $a \in A$ and $a \notin B$, $f(a) \in f(A)$ and $f(a) \notin f(B)$. Since $y=f(a)$ then $y \in f(A)-f(B)$. I feel like this shows equality without injectivity but I know from looking up other answers I am wrong.