Let $\mathbb{F}_p =:K\leqslant F:=\mathbb{F}_{p^n}$. Define the norm of $f\in F$ to be $N_{F/K}(f) = f^{p^{n-1}+p^{n-2}+\ldots +p+1}$
Show that if $f\in\mbox{ker}N$, then $f = g^{p-1}$, for some $g\in F^\times$
One can verify that the norm is always an element of $K$.
We also know that $N(f^p) = N(f)$ and the book [R. Lidl, H. Niederreiter, Finite Fields] says the implication is obvious [analogous to necessity in Thm 2.25 p.56].
Is it obvious? We have $N(f^p)=N(f)=1$ i.e $$(f^p)^{(p^n-1)/(p-1)} = f^{(p^n-1)/(p-1)}=1 $$ how do I explicitly get $g$ here, it's obvious, after all.