I really cannot figure out what is wrong with the last line....
There seem to be three definitions at least for conditional expectation with respect to a random variable. I would like to know if they are equivalent in all or in whichever contexts. Here are the three definitions I've found :
$\mathbb{E}(X|Y)$ is the only $\sigma(Y)$-measurable random variable such that either :
- $\forall Z \in \mathbb{L}^2 \left( \Omega, \sigma(Y), \mathbb{P}|_{\sigma(Y)} \right) \mathbb{E}(Z \mathbb{E}(X|Y)) = \mathbb{E}(ZX)$
$\forall Z$ essentially bounded on $\left( \Omega, \sigma(Y), \mathbb{P}|_{\sigma(Y)} \right) \mathbb{E}(Z \mathbb{E}(X|Y)) = \mathbb{E}(ZX)$
$\forall U \in \sigma(Y)$, $\mathbb{E} ( \mathbb{E}(X|Y) \mathbb{1}_U)= \mathbb{E}(X\mathbb{1}_U) $
I realised 1 implies 2 and 2 implies 3. So really my question is : does 3 imply 1 ?