Let $f(t)$ be a real valued function and $C$ a constant. Is it true that
$$ \limsup_{t\to\infty}\frac{f(t)}{t}=\limsup_{t\to\infty}\frac{f(t+C)}{t} ? $$
I have tried to prove it using a change of variable $s=t+C$, but the denominator seems problematic.