I have a problem with this exercise
Does this limit exist?
$$\lim\limits_{x\to0} \operatorname{sgn} (x)$$
this limit should exist and its value is $0$ according to our textbook. It is also written, that we can prove it by using one-sided limits. And there is a problem, because as I see it
$$\lim_{x\to0^-} \operatorname{sgn} (x) = -1$$
$$\lim_{x\to0^+} \operatorname{sgn} (x) = 1$$
(Because the limit goes very close to $0$, but it never reaches it. I also think it is very similar to prove of non-existence $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to0} \sin\frac 1 x$)
I also tried online limit calculators and they said, that one-sided limits equals $0$.
Could you help me find a problem in my approach?
Thanks for your time!
\sgn (x)and believe that causes symbolab to treat it as the function, but I am not familiar with their syntax. Compare to Wolfram Alpha which does handle the limit correctly here. – dxiv Nov 15 '16 at 18:29