I have just started learning about eigenvectors and eigenvalues, and encountered the following (unjustified) statement.
$ (A - \lambda I)\mathbf{v} = 0$. If the matrix $ (A - \lambda I) $ were invertible, then the solution would simply be $\mathbf{ v } = 0$. But this is not allowed by definition.
I'm curious as to why it is "not allowed by definition"? I would appreciate it if someone could elaborate on the reasoning behind this.
Thank you.