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In this answer I used some symmetry to show that $$ \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x+ \sqrt{1-x^2}} = \frac \pi 4. $$ Then I thought about whether I could make it simpler by avoiding trigonometric substitutions, like this: $$ y = \sqrt{1-x^2} $$ Therefore $$ y^2+x^2=1 \tag a $$ From the symmetry in line $(\text{a})$ we get $$ \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x+y} = \int_0^1 \frac{dy}{x+y}. $$ Now let's do something stupid, claiming that the sum of these two integrals is $$ \int_0^1 \frac{dx + dy}{x+y}. $$ This is stupid because the expression $\displaystyle\int_0^1$ means some particular variable is going from $0$ to $1$, and surely that is not $x+y$. To write such an expression is either to hope the gullible reader won't notice the problem, or else to be the confused student who doesn't notice it. If we want to continue being stupid, we could go on to write this last integral as $$ \int_0^1 \frac{du} u, $$ and this is $+\infty$. (Therefore $\pi/4=+\infty/2$, we could go on to claim if we're feeling adventurous.)

How can we rescue this approach without making it complicated or lengthy? ("This approach" would have to mean fully respecting the symmetrical roles played by $x$ and $y$.)

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    Already $\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x+y}$ looks bad: it appears that $y$ is a constant but it's actually a function of $x$. – Nate Eldredge Nov 21 '16 at 13:13
  • Coming to $y$ and $dy$ one should not forget that it is particular $y=\sqrt{1-x^2}$. Maybe line integrals would help? – A.Γ. Nov 21 '16 at 13:16

2 Answers2

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Let $A$ be the arc of the unit circle in the first quadrant, that is, the quarter-circle arc between $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$.

Then integrating along the arc using $ds$ to denote the length measure, the length of the arc is $$ \int_A ds = \frac\pi2. $$

Now let's parameterize the path along the arc by some variable $t$ via a one-to-one continuous mapping $f$ from the interval $[0,1]$ to the points on the arc with $f(0) = (1,0)$, so that $$ \int_0^1 \frac{ds}{dt} \, dt = \int_A ds = \frac\pi2. $$ Notice that with this parameterization, $\frac{dx}{dt} \geq 0$ and $\frac{dy}{dt} \leq 0$ everywhere on the arc.

At any point along the arc, $\frac{ds}{dt}$ is the hypotenuse of a right triangle with legs $\frac{dx}{dt}$ and $-\frac{dy}{dt}$. Because the direction of the path at each point $(x,y)$ is perpendicular to the segment from $(0,0)$ to $(x,y)$, the triangle with sides $\frac{ds}{dt}$, $\frac{dx}{dt}$, and $-\frac{dy}{dt}$ is similar to a right triangle with hypotenuse $1$ and legs $x$ and $y$. Hence $$ \frac{\frac{dx}{dt} - \frac{dy}{dt}}{x + y} = \frac{\left(\frac{ds}{dt}\right)}{1} = \frac{ds}{dt}. $$

As $t$ runs from $0$ to $1$, $x$ runs from $0$ to $1$ and $y$ runs from $1$ to $0$. Therefore \begin{align} \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} + \int_0^1 \frac{dy}{x + y} &= \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} - \int_1^0 \frac{dy}{x + y} \\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{\frac{dx}{dt}\,dt}{x + y} - \int_0^1 \frac{\frac{dy}{dt}\,dt}{x + y} \\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{\frac{dx}{dt} - \frac{dy}{dt}}{x + y}\,dt \\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{ds}{dt}\,dt \\ &= \frac\pi2. \end{align}

Then you can use the observation that $$\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} = \int_0^1 \frac{dy}{x + y}$$ to conclude that $$\int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} = \frac\pi4.$$

The trick here, as in the parameterization $x=\cos\theta$, $y=\sin\theta$, is that you have to "match up" the meshes of $dx$ and $dy$ so that you can correctly add the them together. The trigonometric substitution was just one particular mapping from a parameter $\theta$ to the arc. But you don't need to invoke that particular mapping. The mapping $x = t$, $y = \sqrt{1 - t^2}$ also works, for example.


Update: The following is an observation on notation inspired by the comments.

The solution above is "dressed up" (or you might say "dumbed down") to fit with my recollection of what a student would become accustomed to in a first-year calculus course based on standard analysis.

The parameter $t$ sets a direction of integration along the arc and keeps the symbols $dx$, $dy$, and $ds$ from having to appear outside the usual contexts such as $\int (\text{something})\,dx$ or $\frac{dx}{d(\text{something})}$, but it really has no other reason to be defined. Given a decent theory of differentials or infinitesimals, so that we can speak of $ds$, $dx$, and $dy$ as objects in their own rights, if we orient the arc so that $\int_A$ integrates from $(0,1)$ to $(1,0)$ then we have the ratios $ds : dx : -dy = 1 : y : x$ and can write \begin{align} \frac{dx - dy}{x + y} &= \frac{ds}{1} = ds, \\ \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} + \int_0^1 \frac{dy}{x + y} &= \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} - \int_1^0 \frac{dy}{x + y} \\ &= \int_A \frac{dx}{x + y} - \int_A \frac{dy}{x + y} \\ &= \int_A \frac{dx - dy}{x + y} \\ &= \int_A ds \\ &= \frac\pi2. \end{align}

This is a more intuitive approach; or at least, I think it is, since it is how I got the intuition on how to set up the integrals in the first place, before I added the parameterization.


And now for a third version inspired by additional comments!

Under the orientation of $ds$ along the quarter-circle arc $A$ from $(1,0)$ to $(0,1)$, we have $\frac{dx}{ds} = y$ and $\frac{dy}{ds} = -x$. Then \begin{align} \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} + \int_0^1 \frac{dy}{x + y} &= \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x + y} - \int_1^0 \frac{dy}{x + y} \\ &= \int_A \frac{dx/ds}{x + y}\,ds - \int_A \frac{dy/ds}{x + y}\,ds \\ &= \int_A \frac{y - (-x)}{x + y}\,ds \\ &= \int_A ds \\ &= \frac\pi2. \end{align}

David K
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  • nice, $\textbf{+1}$ – tired Nov 21 '16 at 15:32
  • $+1.$ Nice argument, but too complicated in some ways; let me try to simplify it: Instead of parametrizing by $t$ without saying what the parametrization is, I will just parametrize by $s$. So $\displaystyle \int_\text{arc} ds = \dfrac\pi2.$ As the point moves along the arc, we have $dx>0$ and $dy<0$ (and some who insist on "rigor" might say $\dfrac{dx}{ds}>0$ and $\dfrac{dy}{ds}<0.$) By similarity of triangles we have $$\frac {ds} 1 = \frac{dx} y = \frac{-dy}{x},$$ and therefore $$ ds = \frac{dx - dy}{x+y}.$$ Hence$,\ldots\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 18:34
  • $$\int_\text{arc} \frac{dx-dy}{x+y} = \int_\text{arc} ds = \frac\pi2.$$ The variable $t$ appears to be just clutter; it doesn't do any work. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 18:34
  • Before reading this answer I had observed that by differentiating both sides of $x^2+y^2=1$ we get $2x,dx+2y,dy=0$ and thus that $\dfrac{dx} y = \dfrac{-dy} x,$ but I hadn't noticed that that is equal to $ds.$ That equality with $ds$ is the heart of this argument. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 18:36
  • I've now posted this answer with my version of this argument, crediting the heart of the argument to the author of this present answer. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 19:40
  • @MichaelHardy I actually started writing this up without $t$, but inserted it later. I suppose I could have asked first if you wouldn't mind using naked differentials, for example $(ds)^2 = (dx)^2 + (dy)^2$, in which case I would have finished the writeup without introducing $t$. – David K Nov 21 '16 at 19:41
  • I love naked differentials. But I think you could write this without $t$ and still without naked differentials. $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 19:45
  • The other equality I know that is of the form $$ \frac{\Big(\text{something associated with } x\Big) - \Big(\text{something associated with }y\Big)}{\Big( \text{something else associated with }x\Big) + \Big(\text{something else associated with } y \Big) } = \text{something} $$ is the trigonometric identity $$ \frac{\sin x - \sin y}{\cos x + \cos y} = \frac{\sin((x-y)/2)}{\cos((x-y)/2} $$ (a tangent half-angle formula). $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 21 '16 at 19:49
  • $\ldots,$and maybe I should add, lest anyone be confused, that the reason I call the trigonometric identity above a "tangent half-angle formula" is that $$\frac{\sin x-\sin y}{\cos x+\cos y} = \tan \frac{x-y} 2.$$ – Michael Hardy Jan 03 '17 at 20:14
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I'm not sure I understand what you are after, so please don't be too hard on me if I misunderstand you.

Let $$ I=\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x+\sqrt{1-x^2}}\,dx $$ Changing variables via $x\mapsto \sqrt{1-x^2}$ will give you $$ I=\int_0^1\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}(x+\sqrt{1-x^2})}\,dx. $$ Thus $$ \begin{aligned} 2I&=\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x+\sqrt{1-x^2}}+\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}(x+\sqrt{1-x^2})}\,dx\\ &=\int_0^1 \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\,dx=\arcsin 1=\frac{\pi}{2}. \end{aligned} $$

mickep
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  • Related: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/213809/the-same-bit-of-trivial-algebra-in-two-different-places $\qquad$ – Michael Hardy Nov 26 '16 at 17:04
  • Indeed. In fact, I'm still not sure what you are actually after. That is probably not your fault, though. – mickep Nov 26 '16 at 17:08