I devised a neat proof that the integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval is $0$. I was immediately tempted to post it to math stack, but feared it would frowned upon as it is not a question. Therefore, I was hoping to find out if there was a place to post non-question based things like a proof.
On another note, if anyone is interested, her is my proof:
Note first that: $$\int_a^b f(x) \, dx = \int_a^b f(a+b-x) \, dx$$ In the case of a symmetric interval, this reads: $$\int_{-a}^a f(x)\,dx = \int_{-a}^a f(a-a-x)\,dx = \int_{-a}^a f(-x) \, dx$$ In the case of an odd function, $f(-x) = -f(x)$, so that $$\int_{-a}^a f(x) \, dx = -\int_{-a}^a f(x) \, dx$$ The only way that a positive number can equal a negative number is if the number is $0$. QED