Question: Let $\Bbb{F}$ be a field Let $f(X), g(X) \in \Bbb F[X]$ Suppose that $f(X)g(X) = 1$. Prove that $f(X)=a$ for some $a \in \Bbb F$
My attempt:
If we assume $\deg f(X)$, $\deg g(X)$ $\ge 0$ then we know
$\deg f(X)$ $\deg g(X)$ = $\deg f(X)$ + $\deg g(X)$ = 0
Therefore $\deg f(X)= 0 \Rightarrow f(X)=a$ where $a\in \Bbb F$
Would this be a correct proof? Am I allowed to assume that $\deg f(X)$, $\deg g(X)$ $\ge 0$