I have derived (by Fourier methods) that, for nonnegative integers $n$, $$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{1 - \cos nt}{1 - \cos t} \,dt = 2\pi n.$$ I can prove this using complex analysis by the substitution $z = e^{it}$, which gives $$ \oint_{|z|=1} \frac{(1 - z^n)(1 - z^{-n})}{(1-z)(1-z^{-1})} \frac{dz}{z} $$ to which we can apply the residue theorem, but I am interested in other proofs.
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1http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2008044/how-do-i-prove-int-0-pi-frac-sin-nx2-sin-x2dx-n-pi – lab bhattacharjee Dec 03 '16 at 02:34
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It may look similar to the solution using the residue theorem, we use $$ \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{(1-e^{int})(1-e^{-int})}{(1-e^{it})(1-e^{-it})}dt = \int_0^{2\pi} (1+e^{it} + \cdots + e^{i(n-1)t})(1+e^{-it}+\cdots + e^{-i(n-1)t})dt. $$
Sungjin Kim
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