Suppose $f(x,y,z)$ is a function, where $z$ is a function of $x,y$, i.e. $z=u(x,y)$. Does the following hold due to the chain rule?
$$\frac{\partial }{\partial x}f(x,y,u(x,y))=\frac{\partial }{\partial x}f(x,y,u(x,y))+\frac{\partial }{\partial u}f(x,y,u(x,y))\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}$$
I dont think this is true because if so then $\frac{\partial }{\partial u}f(x,y,u(x,y))\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}$ should be $0$?