For any $n$ numbers $a_1, \ldots, a_n > 0$, we have
$$
\begin{align}
\lim_{p\to+\infty} (a_1^p + a_2^p + \ldots + a_n^p)^{1/p}
&= \max\{ a_1, \ldots, a_n \}\tag{*1a}\\
\lim_{p\to-\infty} (a_1^p + a_2^p + \ldots + a_n^p)^{1/p} &= \min\{ a_1, \ldots, a_n \}\tag{*1b}
\end{align}$$
I will only justify $(*1a)$.
Relabeling the numbers if necessary, we only need to study the case $0 < a_1 \le a_2 \ldots \le a_n$.
For any $p > 0$, we have
$$ a_n = (a_n^p)^{1/p} \le (a_1^p + \ldots + a_n^p)^{1/p} \le (a_n^p + \ldots + a_n^p)^{1/p} = n^{1/p} a_n$$
Since $\lim\limits_{p\to+\infty} n^{1/p} = 1$, by squeezing, $(*1a)$ follows.
Apply this to the case $(a_1,\ldots,a_n) = (1,\ldots,n)$ and notice as $x \to 0$, $\frac{1}{\sin^2x} \to +\infty$, we get
$$\lim_{x\to 0} \left(1^{1/\sin^2 x} + \ldots + n^{1/\sin^2 x}\right)^{\sin^2 x}
= \max\{ 1, \ldots, n \} = n$$