Let $C_R$ be the path parametrized by $z = R e^{i\theta}$ with $\theta \in [0,\pi]$ on the complex plane. I want to show that, with $\xi < 0$,
$$\lim_{R\to \infty} \int_{C_R} \dfrac{e^{-2\pi i z\xi}}{z^2+a^2}dz = 0$$
in a rigorous way. The non rigorous way would be to write $z = x+iy$ and notice that
$$e^{-2\pi ix\xi}=e^{2\pi y\xi}e^{-2\pi i x\xi}.$$
In that case when $\xi < 0$ we have $2\pi \xi < 0$ and as $R\to \infty$, $y\to \infty$ and the exponential goes to zero, and since it is the exponential, the integral goes to zero.
I'm interested in the rigorous version of the proof of this limit. How can I show that this integral goes to zero as $R\to \infty$ rigorously?
EDIT: Thinking a little bit more I think I have it: we have
$$f(z) = \dfrac{e^{2\pi y\xi}e^{-2\pi ix\xi}}{z^2+a^2}$$
Hence we have
$$|f(z)| = \dfrac{e^{2\pi y\xi}}{|z^2+a^2|},$$
but $|z^2+a^2|\geq ||z|^2+a^2| = |R^2+a^2|,$ thus we have
$$|f(z)|\leq \dfrac{e^{-2\pi R\sin \theta |\xi|}}{R^2+a^2}$$
but we have $\theta \in [0,\pi]$ so that $2\pi R |\xi|\sin \theta \geq 0$. With this we have $e^{-2\pi R\sin\theta |\xi|} \leq e^{0} = 1$, and we have
$$|f(z)|\leq \dfrac{1}{R^2+a^2}.$$
By a standard theorem on complex analysis we then have
$$\left|\int_{C_R} f(z)dz\right|\leq \dfrac{\pi R}{R^2+a^2},$$
and now this last thing obviously goes to zero as $R\to \infty$, proving the limit. Is this the way to do it?