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In my book it states $\int \frac{f^1(x)}{f^2(x)}=-\frac{1}{f(x)}$. I don't really understand why and it doesn't say in my book.

My first idea was maybe we can cancle out $f^1(x)$. So $\int \frac{f^1(x)}{f^2(x)} = \int \frac{1}{f^1(x)}$.

But I'm not sure if you can do that and it also doesn't explain the minus from $-\frac{1}{f(x)}$ .

Sam
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2 Answers2

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Hint. Let's assume it's a derivative on the top. This comes from the fact that $$ \left(\frac1{x} \right)'=-\frac1{x^2} $$ and from using the chain rule: $$ \left(\frac1{f(x)} \right)'=f'(x) \cdot \left(-\frac{1}{f^2(x)}\right)=-\frac{f'(x)}{f^2(x)}. $$

Olivier Oloa
  • 120,989
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$\displaystyle \int \frac{f'(x) } {(f(x) )^2 }dx =- \frac{1}{f(x)} + c$, so is it possible your expression represents that?

Deepak
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