In my book it states $\int \frac{f^1(x)}{f^2(x)}=-\frac{1}{f(x)}$. I don't really understand why and it doesn't say in my book.
My first idea was maybe we can cancle out $f^1(x)$. So $\int \frac{f^1(x)}{f^2(x)} = \int \frac{1}{f^1(x)}$.
But I'm not sure if you can do that and it also doesn't explain the minus from $-\frac{1}{f(x)}$ .