0

I already tried to solve it myself and to type it into the calculator, but it gives out some weird stuff with an endless long solution.

Julian
  • 1,401

2 Answers2

4

Since $\left|\sin\right|\leq 1$, Fubini's theorem applies, hence: $$ I=\int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(s-t)}{t^3}\,dt\,ds = \int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{t^3}\int_{0}^{2\pi}\sin(s-t)\,ds\,dt = 0. $$ But you don't even need Fubini's theorem to state the same: $$ \int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(s-t)}{t^3}\,dt = \sin(s)\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\cos(t)}{t^3}\,dt - \cos(s)\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(t)}{t^3}\,dt $$ where both $\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\cos(t)}{t^3}\,dt$ and $\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(t)}{t^3}\,dt$ are converging integrals, bounded by $\int_{1}^{+\infty}\frac{dt}{t^3}=\frac{1}{2}$ in absolute value. It follows that: $$ I = \int_{0}^{2\pi}\left(A \sin(s)+B\cos(s)\right)\,ds = 0.$$

Jack D'Aurizio
  • 353,855
-1

Zero is the correct result.

Switching the integrals you have

$$\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\text{d}t}{t^3}\int_0^{+2\pi} \sin(s-t)\ \text{d}s = \int_1^{+\infty}\frac{\text{d}t}{t^3}\left(-\cos(s-t)\bigg|_{0}^{+2\pi}\right)$$

But

$$\left(-\cos(s-t)\bigg|_{0}^{+2\pi}\right) = 0$$

Hence

$$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{\text{d}t}{t^3}\cdot 0 = 0$$

Enrico M.
  • 26,114
  • 3
    Wouldn't hurt to justify why switching the integrals is allowed. – user159517 Dec 12 '16 at 16:16
  • @user159517 I don't have to give an entire lesson about Fubini's theorem and so on. If one studies, then he can understand by his own why it's legit to switch. – Enrico M. Dec 12 '16 at 16:17
  • 2
    What a strange reasoning. Why give the half you gave then? The same reasoning would apply, no? – Did Dec 12 '16 at 16:38