I have the following function:
$$f(x) = \frac{1}{x^\alpha\sqrt{x^2+1}}$$ and I have to determine the convergence of $\int{}{}_0^{+\infty}f(x)dx$ in relation to $\alpha$
I know that $\int_0^{+\infty}f(x) = \int_0^{1}f(x) + \int_1^{+\infty}f(x)$
Since I didn't understand the problem I looked in the answers and there it read the following:
The first integral converges if $\alpha<1$ since it behaves like $\int_0^{1}\frac{1}{x^\alpha}$.
The second integral converges if $\alpha>0$ since it behaves like $\int_1^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^{\alpha+1}}$.
Can anyone explain this behaviour please?