Here's where the logic for most of the answers comes from, and how we avoid the use L'Hopital's Rule.
First, let's observe a very important limit, namely $\displaystyle \lim_{h\to0}{e^h-1\over h}$. We know that $$e = \lim_{x\to\infty}\left(1+{1\over x}\right)^{x} = \lim_{y\to0}\left(1 + y\right)^{1/y}.$$ So, using some creative algebra we have $$\begin{align}\lim_{h\to0}{e^h - 1 \over h} &= \lim_{y\to0}{y\over\ln(y+1)} \tag{Let $y = e^h - 1 \iff h = \ln(y+1)$}\\ &=\lim_{y\to0}\left({1\over{1\over y}\ln(y+1)}\right) \\ &=\lim_{y\to0}{1\over\ln[(1+y)^{1/y}]}\\&={1\over\ln(e)}\\&={1\over1} \\&= 1.\end{align}$$ Notice how the limit changes from $h\to0$ to $y\to0$ because as $x\to 0$, $y = e^h - 1 \to e^0 - 1 = 1-1=0$, hence $y\to 0$. Now, we begin the important part of proving the limit.
Using this result, it is very easy to prove that $$\begin{align}\lim_{x\to0}{e^{2x} - 1\over x} &= \lim_{x\to0}\left({2\over2}\right)\left({e^{2x}-1\over x}\right)\\&=2\lim_{x\to0}{e^{2x}-1\over2x}\\&=2(1)\\&=2.\end{align}$$
Therefore, we have that $$\begin{align}\lim_{x\to0}{e^{2x}-1\over\tan x} &=\lim_{x\to0}[(e^{2x} - 1)\cot(x)] \\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\left((e^{2x}-1)\cdot{\cos(x)\over \sin(x)}\right) \\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\left((e^{2x}-1)\cdot{2x\over2x}\cdot{\cos(x)\over \sin(x)}\right)\\&=2\lim_{x\to0}\left[{e^{2x}-1\over2x}\cdot{x\over\sin(x)}\cdot\cos(x)\right]\\&= 2\lim_{x\to0}\left[{e^{2x}-1\over2x}\cdot{1\over{\sin(x)\over x}}\cdot\cos(x)\right]\\&=2\left(1\cdot{1\over1}\cdot1\right)\\&=2.\end{align}$$