I have to prove that $A_{\mu} B^{\mu}$ is Lorentz invariant, and I'd like to check my understanding with you if you don't mind.
My first question is about the definition of Lorentz invariance. Does it mean the following:
$A'_{\mu} B'^{\mu} = A_{\mu} B^{\mu}$ ?
If so, I think I have an idea how to prove it but I might get confused with the indexes. I would express $A'_{\mu}$ and $B'^{\mu}$ as
$A'_{\mu} = a_{\mu}^{\phantom{\mu} \nu} A_{\nu}$ and
$B'^{\mu} = a^{\mu}_{\phantom{\mu} \nu} B^{\nu}$.
Is that correct? Moreover, if I was to calculate the product above, can I use the same indices for both terms? That is:
$A'_{\mu} B'^{\mu} = a_{\mu}^{\phantom{\mu} \nu} A_{\nu} a^{\mu}_{\phantom{\mu} \nu} B^{\nu}$?
If so, I can rewrite the following as:
$A'_{\mu} B'^{\mu} = a_{\mu}^{\phantom{\mu} \nu} A_{\nu} a^{\mu}_{\phantom{\mu} \nu} B^{\nu} = \underbrace{a_{\mu}^{\phantom{\mu} \nu} a^{\mu}_{\phantom{\mu} \nu}}_{= \delta_{\nu}^{\nu}} A_{\nu} B^{\nu} = 1 \cdot A_{\mu} B^{\mu} = A_{\mu} B^{\mu}$.
Does all of that makes sense? I'm still trying to get a feel of this new notation for me.
Thank you very much in advance for your comments.
Julien.