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Show that $ f(x)=x^{1000}-x^{500}+x^{100}+x+1=0 $ has no rational roots.

quid
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4 Answers4

2

By the rational root theorem you need only consider $1$ and $-1$

Asinomás
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2

The Rational Roots theorem says that if there is a rational roots then it should be $1$ or $-1$. Testing both we see that $f(1)=3$ and $f(-1)=1$ and then there is no rational roots.

Arnaldo
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2

Since the constant and the leading coefficient of the polynomial are both $1$, the rational root theorem tells us that $\pm1$ are the only possible rational roots. It is easy to check that these are in fact not roots of your polynomial.

Dominik
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1

If there a rational root, let it be $\frac pq$,where $(p,q)=1$ [$(p,q)$ means the H.C.F. of $p$ and $q$] and $q\ne 0$. then $q$ should divide coefficient of the leading tern and $p$ should divide the constant term.

Thus, $q|1 \implies q=\pm1$ and $p|1 \implies p=\pm1$

Thus, $$\frac{p}{q}=\pm1$$ Now, If the root $\frac{p}{q}=1$ $$f(1)=1-1+1+1+1=3\ne0$$ So, $1$ is not a root .

If $\frac pq=-1 $, then $$f(-1)=1\ne0$$ Hence,$-1$ is not a root.

Thus, there exist no rational root for the given polynomial.

Harsh Kumar
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